Jun 30, 2012 08:57pm
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Levi Nathan
- Is this really Wenkebach?
The very first P doesnt conduct. The next one conducts with a long PR interval followed by the next P which doesnt conduct again. Then you have a conducting P wave followed again by a non-conducting one. I don't see lenghtening PR intervals here.
It seems like every other beat conducts, which is more like a Mobitz II. Other possibilities could be an AV block complicated by some premature junctional beats (5th+6th beats). Either they are premature junctional beats with an incidental overlying P wave or that is an extremely short PR interval with a delta wave (look in aVF).
It seems like every other beat conducts, which is more like a Mobitz II. Other possibilities could be an AV block complicated by some premature junctional beats (5th+6th beats). Either they are premature junctional beats with an incidental overlying P wave or that is an extremely short PR interval with a delta wave (look in aVF).